Unit 1 Practice Test (Constitutional Underpinnings)

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

The Framers’ concerns about direct democracy are well illustrated by the fact that the Constitution

a.	uses the word democracy only once, in the Preamble.
b.	uses the word democracy only in reference to Congress.
c.	does not feature the word democracy at all.
d.	uses only the word democratic.
e.	frequently uses the word democracy, but never in reference to the enumeration of a formal power.

When the Framers of the Constitution wrote “republican form of government,” they were referring to

a.	direct democracy.
b.	democratic centralism.
c.	mob rule.
d.	town meetings.
e.	representative democracy.

All of the following are requirements for representative democracy EXCEPT

a.	there must be opportunity for genuine leadership competition.
b.	individuals and parties must be able to run for office.
c.	voters must perceive that a meaningful choice exists.
d.	political resources must be distributed in a roughly equal manner.
e.	communication through the press, meetings, and the internet or speech must be free.

In a referendum, citizens express their opinions about issues by means of

a.	letters.
b.	the ballot.
c.	town meetings.
d.	petitions.
e.	Both A and D are true.

Which statement best reflects the views of the Framers of the Constitution?

a.	Elected officials should register majority sentiments.
b.	The will of the people was not synonymous with the public good.
c.	The views of the people are trustworthy because most are informed and can make reasonable choices.
d.	A government should be able to do a great deal of good as quickly and as efficiently as possible.
e.	Majority opinion should be irrelevant to the policymaking process.

Elite theory is NOT based on the following premise.

a.	Majoritarian politics is not always controlling.
b.	When majoritarian politics is not controlling, policy is likely to be shaped by those who go to the trouble to be active participants in politics.
c.	In general, the number of active participants in politics will be small (relative to the total number of potential participants).
d.	Despite their small numbers, those who are active participants in politics generally reflect the types of people in the general population and the viewpoints of most citizens.
e.	The actual distribution of power, even in a democracy, will depend importantly on the composition of the political elites.

Karl Marx argued that governments were dominated by business owners, who he called “__________”, until a revolution replaced them with rule by laborers, who he called “__________”.

a.	proletariat; bourgeoisie
b.	bourgeoisie; proletariat
c.	power elite; middle class
d.	working class; lower class
e.	laborites; working class

The pluralist view of power focuses on

a.	a dominant social class.
b.	a group of business, military, labor-union, and elected officials.
c.	an array of appointed bureaucrats.
d.	a large number of governmental interests and organized interests.
e.	a flexible alliance of religious and cultural leaders.

Of the following, which one affects the political agenda?

a.	Shared political values
b.	The weight of custom and tradition
c.	The impact of events
d.	Changes in the way political elites think
e.	All of the above are true.

10.

What effect does the national media most likely have on the political agenda?

a.	Publicize issues by giving them most attention
b.	Influence politicians into voting a particular way
c.	Produce stories that force politicians to act
d.	The size and power demands act
e.	None of the above is true.

11.

A city council representative faces an important vote on how much, if any, money to spend on a new school. The representative relies on a poll of her constituents to make a decision. This is in keeping with the form of politics known as

a.	participatory politics.
b.	majoritarian politics.
c.	pluralist politics.
d.	elitist politics.
e.	reciprocal politics.

12.

A policy in which one small group benefits and another small group pays.

a.	Interest group politics
b.	Majoritarian politics
c.	Client politics
d.	Entrepreneurial politics
e.	Logrolling politics

13.

The principal goal of the American Revolution was

a.	equality.
b.	financial betterment.
c.	political efficacy.
d.	fraternity.
e.	liberty.

14.

One of the basic liberties sought by the colonists through independence from Great Britain was

a.	freedom from taxation without representation.
b.	the right to bear arms and to defend life and property.
c.	freedom to assemble in public and to engage in public debate.
d.	the right to own and trade slaves.
e.	the right to travel.

15.

Under the Articles of Confederation, amendments had to

a.	be written in secret.
b.	be submitted to the national judiciary for approval.
c.	have the approval of half of the state governors.
d.	be supported by all thirteen states.
e.	All of the above are true.

16.

The Declaration of Independence explicitly stated that governments were instituted among men to

a.	improve human nature.
b.	create equality.
c.	protect borders.
d.	secure rights.
e.	punish criminals.

17.

An unalienable right is one that is based on

a.	nature and Providence.
b.	the Constitution and primary documents.
c.	custom and tradition.
d.	legal precedent.
e.	executive proclamations.

18.

All of the following were true of the government under the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT

a.	larger states had more votes in the national legislature.
b.	there was no national judicial branch.
c.	the national government could not levy taxes.
d.	the national government could not regulate commerce.
e.	amendment required the support of all thirteen states.

19.

The purpose of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was to

a.	prepare a new constitution.
b.	consider revisions to the Articles of Confederation.
c.	draft a declaration of independence.
d.	adopt a common state constitution.
e.	prepare for a second revolution.

20.

This rebellion occurred in January 1787 when a group of ex-Revolutionary War soldiers, fearful of losing their property to creditors and tax collectors, forcibly prevented the courses in western Massachusetts from sitting.

a.	Shays’s Rebellion
b.	Bacon’s Rebellion
c.	Whiskey Rebellion
d.	Clarke’s Rebellion
e.	None of the above is true.

21.

Which state refused to send a delegate to the Constitutional Convention?

a.	New York
b.	Pennsylvania
c.	Massachusetts
d.	Virginia
e.	Rhode Island

22.

The “state of nature” refers to

a.	society without government.
b.	government without society.
c.	formation of government along the lines of natural law.
d.	the clash between government and society.
e.	the very highest form of government.

23.

The central issue in the framing of the U.S. Constitution was that of

a.	how strong to make the national government.
b.	how best to divide powers among the branches of government.
c.	how best to break with Great Britain.
d.	how to adopt liberty but still allow slaveholding.
e.	how to create a truly independent judiciary.

24.

This plan presented at the Constitutional Convention called for a bicameral legislative body with states’ representation in each house based on population.

a.	Connecticut Plan
b.	New Jersey Plan
c.	Maryland Plan
d.	Virginia Plan
e.	Great Compromise

25.

The New Jersey Plan was a reaction by some states primarily to the fear that

a.	the legislative veto power called for by the Virginia Plan would seriously undermine individual states’ rights.
b.	the weak central government devised by the Virginia Plan would grant too much power to rural states.
c.	the strong central government devised by the Virginia Plan would grant too much power to small states.
d.	the Virginia Plan gave too much power to populous states.
e.	Hamilton’s suggestions about the executive branch would be accepted by the convention.

26.

The Great Compromise finally allocated representation on the basis of

a.	population, in both houses.
b.	equality, in both houses.
c.	population in the House and statehood equality in the Senate.
d.	equality in the House and population in the Senate.
e.	None of the above is true.

27.

The American version of representative democracy is based on two major principles: __________and __________.

a.	separation of powers; federalism
b.	unicameralism; federalism
c.	judicial review; federalism
d.	party government; federalism
e.	None of the above is true.

28.

Generally, the Antifederalists felt that the government created by the U.S. Constitution was

a.	an insufficient check on the power of the states.
b.	too strong and too centralized.
c.	too liberal.
d.	barely strong enough to be effective.
e.	overprotective of individual rights.

29.

The Federalist papers were

a.	written at the Constitutional Convention as a way to explain the work that was done there.
b.	composed by Hamilton and Washington just before the meeting at Annapolis.
c.	articles written by Hamilton, Madison, and Jay to gain support for the Constitution.
d.	adopted by the Constitutional Convention as a substitute for the Bill of Rights.
e.	rejected by the Federalists as Antifederalist propaganda.

30.

James Madison’s main argument in favor of a federalist position, stated in Federalist No. 10 and No. 51, was in defense of

a.	large republics.
b.	small democracies governed by direct democracy.
c.	a bill of rights.
d.	large legislatures with small districts and frequent turnover.
e.	centralized judiciaries.

31.

When the Framers drafted the Constitution, the Antifederalist opposed it primarily on the grounds that the new government

a.	empowered state governments.
b.	created a bicameral Congress.
c.	gave states the power to coin money.
d.	created a navy.
e.	gave too much power to the national government.

32.

In a confederation, the national government derives its power from

a.	the people.
b.	the states.
c.	the Congress.
d.	the courts.
e.	None of the above is true.

33.

The Founders did not include in the U.S. Constitution an explicit statement of state powers but added it later in

a.	the Second Amendment.
b.	the Seventh Amendment.
c.	the Tenth Amendment.
d.	the Fourteenth Amendment.
e.	None of the above is true.

34.

An important outcome of Marshall’s ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) was to

a.	place limits on the constitutional powers granted to Congress by refusing McCulloch’s appeal.
b.	give greater power to the states in taxing agents of the federal government, including banks.
c.	protect newspaper editors who publish stories critical of the federal government.
d.	restrict the power of the Court in cases involving conflicts between states and the federal government.
e.	confirm the supremacy of the federal government in the exercise of the constitutional powers granted to Congress.

35.

In McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), the Supreme Court ruled that

a.	states could form banks and tax them.
b.	the national government could charter banks and the states could not tax those banks.
c.	the national government’s power was dependent on the states.
d.	Congress erred when it created a national banking system.
e.	states could not charter banks.

36.

In United States v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court ruled that Congress overstepped its power to regulate commerce by prohibiting __________ in a school zone.

a.	guns
b.	adult bookstores
c.	cigarette sales
d.	alcohol sales
e.	dog races

37.

In McCulloch v. Maryland

a.	the Constitution’s “necessary and proper” clause permits Congress to take actions when it is essential to a power that Congress has.
b.	the Constitution’s commerce clause gives the national government exclusive power to regulate interstate commerce.
c.	Congress may not act to subject nonconsenting states to lawsuits in state courts.
d.	the states may not regulate interstate commerce.
e.	the national government’s authority to require state officials to administer or enforce a federal regulation is limited.

38.

In Gibbons v. Ogden

a.	the Constitution’s “necessary and proper” clause permits Congress to take actions when it is essential to a power that Congress has.
b.	the Constitution’s commerce clause gives the national government exclusive power to regulate interstate commerce.
c.	Congress may not act to subject nonconsenting states to lawsuits in state courts.
d.	the states may not regulate interstate commerce.
e.	the national government’s authority to require state officials to administer or enforce a federal regulation is limited.

39.

A categorical grant is a transfer of federal funds designed for

a.	the private sector.
b.	discretionary use by a state.
c.	the accomplishment of broad goals.
d.	programs with matching grants.
e.	specific purposes.

40.

This basic element of U.S. political culture holds that people ought to take community affairs seriously and help out when they can.

a.	Liberty
b.	Democracy
c.	Individualism
d.	Civic duty
e.	Economic equality

41.

All of the following are basic elements of the U.S. political culture EXCEPT

a.	liberty.
b.	democracy.
c.	individualism.
d.	civic duty.
e.	economic equality.

42.

Religious diversity flourished in the United States due to the absence of a(n)

a.	established religion.
b.	strong state governments
c.	strong central government.
d.	established aristocracy.
e.	charismatic religious leaders.

43.

The most important source of political values in the United States is probably

a.	the mass media.
b.	the family.
c.	religion.
d.	public schools.
e.	local newspapers.

44.

The notion that individuals should work hard, save their money, and avoid dependence on the state is sometimes referred to as the

a.	Protestant (work) ethic.
b.	blue-collar ethic.
c.	doctrine of social Darwinism.
d.	evolutionary principle.
e.	labor theory of value.

45.

Civil society is used to describe

a.	commercial groups.
b.	government agencies.
c.	quasi-public corporations.
d.	private, voluntary groups.
e.	None of the above is true.